1
Q
Which keyboard key can boot a computer directly to the BIOS?
Choices:
A - Esc
B - Delete
C - Up Arrow
D - Down Arrow
A
B - Delete
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2
Q
Which BIOS screen shows a list of computer drives?
Choices:
A - Cell Menu
B - Integrated Peripherals
C - Advanced BIOS Features
D - Standard CMOS Features
A
D - Standard CMOS Features
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3
Q
A user is having trouble booting into a computer. A technician removes the USB drive and the computer boots normally. Where in the BIOS can the technician go to change a setting so that the computer does not have this problem in the future?
Choices:
A - Security
B - Peripherals
C - Boot Sequence
D - Password Settings
A
C - Boot Sequence
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4
Q
Which BIOS setting controls whether a system boots up on its own after a power outage has ended?Choices\:A - Green Power Settings B - Power Saving Settings C - Restore at end of outage D - Restore on AC Power Loss
A
D - Restore on AC Power Loss
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5
Q
Which types of passwords are usually found in a BIOS? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - User
B - Network
C - Supervisor
D - Operating system
A
A - User
C - Supervisor
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6
Q
In a BIOS, overclocking information is typically saved in __________.
Choices:
A - CPU
B - RAM
C - Password Settings
D - Overclocking Profile
A
D - Overclocking Profile
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7
Q
Which is the inherent problem when increasing a CPU's clock settings?Choices:A - Temperature may be too low B - Temperature may be too high C - CPU may be too fast for RAM D - CPU may be too slow for RAM
A
B - Temperature may be too high
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8
Q
Which part of a computer can be encrypted in some BIOS settings?
Choices:
A - CPU
B - RAM
C - Hard drive
D - Network card
A
C - Hard drive
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9
Q
Which BIOS setting indicates that the case is being removed from the computer?
Choices:
A - TPM
B - LoJack
C - Secure Boot
D - Intrusion detection and notification
A
D - Intrusion detection and notification
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10
Q
Which Windows screen shows the BIOS information, including the BIOS number?
Choices:
A - System
B - System Information
C - System Configuration
D - Computer Management
A
B - System Information
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11
Q
Which types of motherboards do not usually need fan or liquid cooling? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - ITX
B - ATX
C - Mini ITX
D - Micro ATX
A
A - ITX
C - Mini ITX
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12
Q
Which motherboard typically has a square shape?
Choices:
A - ITX
B - ATX
C - Mini ITX
D - Micro ATX
A
D - Micro ATX
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13
Q
Which type of chipset interacts with onboard graphics, expansion slots, and USB?
Choices:
A - Eastbridge
B - Westbridge
C - Southbridge
D - Northbridge
A
C - Southbridge
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14
Q
If the system date and time keeps resetting every time a computer is booted up, which item is most likely failing?
Choices:
A - CPU
B - Timer
C - CMOS battery
D - Windows drivers
A
C - CMOS battery
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15
Q
Which is a type of fan connector?
Choices:
A - PIX
B - Pinx
C - Molex
D - Simplex
A
C - Molex
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16
Q
Which are types of front panel connectors? Choose four answers.
Choices:
A - USBB - SATA C - FireWire D - Ethernet E - Headphone F - Microphone
A
A - USB
C - FireWire
E - Headphone
F - Microphone
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17
Q
A user is trying to turn a computer on. They have pushed the power button, but the power light is not on. Which are possible reasons for this issue? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - The computer has a virus
B - The hard drive has crashed
C - The computer is unplugged
D - The power cable inside the computer is disconnected
A
C - The computer is unplugged
D - The power cable inside the computer is disconnected
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18
Q
Bus speeds are measured using which method of measurement?
Choices:
A - Hz
B - Bits
C - Bytes
D - Light years
A
A - Hz
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19
Q
Which is the oldest type of RAM?
Choices:
A - SSD
B - DDR
C - DDR2
D - SO-DIMM
A
B - DDR
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20
Q
Which type of RAM is used in laptops?
Choices:
A - USB
B - DDR
C - DDR2
D - SO-DIMM
A
D - SO-DIMM
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21
Q
A __________- sided RAM chip can run both of its sides at a time while a __________- sided chip can only run one side at a time.
Choices:
A - octo; uni
B - double; uni
C - single; double
D - double; single
A
C - single; double
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22
Q
Which error checking method is only used in high-end machines?
Choices:
A - Flash
B - Parity
C - ECC RAM
D - Performance monitor
A
C - ECC RAM
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23
Q
Buffered memory has an extra chip on the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ module to handle large amounts of processing.Choices:
A - Bus
B - DIMM
C - SO-DIMM
D - Performance
A
B - DIMM
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24
Q
Which is the first step to installing a video or sound card?
Choices:
A - Get the drivers
B - Open the machine
C - Turn the machine on
D - Install the sound card
A
A - Get the drivers
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25
Q
Video cards are installed in which type of slot?
Choices:
A - PCI
B - Kerberos
C - PCI Video
D - PCI Express
A
D - PCI Express
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26
Q
Which are types of expansion cards? Choose four answers.
Choices:
A - Riser B - SATA C - Modem D - TV tuner E - Notebook F - Thunderbolt
A
A - Riser
C - Modem
D - TV tuner
F - Thunderbolt
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27
Q
Which type of expansion card sometimes has built-in RAID support?
Choices:
A - Cellular
B - Storage
C - Wireless
D - Video capture
A
B - Storage
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28
Q
Which are types of optical drives? Choose three answers.
Choices:
A - CD B - USB C - DVD D - SATA E - Blu-ray
A
A - CD
C - DVD
E - Blu-ray
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29
Q
Which are different types of recordable discs? Choose four answers.
Choices:
A - BD-R B - BD-RE C - CD-ZD D - DVD-RW E - DVD-WTR F - DVD-RW DL
A
A - BD-R
B - BD-RE
D - DVD-RW
F - DVD-RW DL
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30
Q
Which best defines a hot swappable device?
Choices:
A - An optical drive that can be installed into a machine while it is running
B - A solid-state drive that can be uninstalled on a machine while it is running
C - A USB drive that can be installed or uninstalled on a machine while it is running
D - A hard drive that can be installed or uninstalled into a machine while it is running
A
D - A hard drive that can be installed or uninstalled into a machine while it is running
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31
Q
Which are types of flash memory drives? Choose four answers.
Choices:
A - xD B - MiniSD C - Mini USB D - MicroSD E - Micro USB F - Compact Flash
A
A - xD
B - MiniSD
D - MicroSD
F - Compact Flash
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32
Q
Which is a regular SD measurement?
Choices:
A - 24 x 32 mm
B - 36 x 43 mm
C - 43 x 36 mm
D - 50 x 100 mm
A
A - 24 x 32 mm
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33
Q
Which best defines an eMMC?
Choices:
A - A combination of an SSD and HDD device
B - Flash memory and a controller that controls media output
C - Flash memory and a controller that controls media output and how long the system remains powered
D - Flash memory and a controller that goes into a small ball grid array as a permanent attachment to circuit boards
A
D - Flash memory and a controller that goes into a small ball grid array as a permanent attachment to circuit boards
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34
Q
How many hard drives are used in a RAID 0?
Choices:
A - One
B - Two
C - Four
D - Three
A
B - Two
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35
Q
Which is a tape drive backup method?
Choices:
A - Waterfall
B - Hierarchical
C - Grandfather, Father, Son
D - Grandmother, Mother, Daughter
A
C - Grandfather, Father, Son
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36
Q
A movie lover needs to store a movie that is over 2 GB large. Which form of media should the movie lover use?
Choices:
A - CD
B - VCR
C - DVD
D - Tape
A
C - DVD
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37
Q
Which are Intel CPU socket types? Choose four answers.
Choices:
A - 775 B - 904 C - 941 D - 1150 E - 1366 F - 2011
A
A - 775
D - 1150
E - 1366
F - 2011
38
Q
Which are groups of AMD CPU sockets? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - SM
B - FM
C - XM
D - AM
A
B - FM
D - AM
39
Q
When it comes to CPUs, having multiple cores does not mean there are multiple __________.
Choices:
A - drives
B - servers
C - networks
D - processors
A
D - processors
40
Q
Which best defines a CPU cache?
Choices:
A - A place where a CPU stores important ROM
B - An expansion device used to store RAM instructions
C - A CPU element that stores instructions the CPU will need again in SRAM
D - A CPU element that stores instructions the CPU will need again in DRAM
A
C - A CPU element that stores instructions the CPU will need again in SRAM
41
Q
Virtualization support ensures users can support which type of virtual machines?
Choices:
A - AMD
B - 32-bit
C - 64-bit
D - Kerberos
A
C - 64-bit
42
Q
Which are the two different types of CPU architecture?
Choices:
A - AMD
B - Intel
C - 32-bit
D - 64-bit
A
C - 32-bit
D - 64-bit
43
Q
Which best describes what the Execute Disable Bit does?
Choices:
A - Disables code execution in the CPU when a worm tries to insert code into it
B - Disables code execution in the GPU when a worm tries to insert code into it
C - Disables code execution in the buffer when a worm tries to insert code into it
D - Disables code execution in the motherboard when a worm tries to insert code into it
A
C - Disables code execution in the buffer when a worm tries to insert code into it
44
Q
Which are CPU cooling methods? Choose five answers.
Choices:
A - Fans B - Heat sink C - Liquid paste D - Liquid-based E - Thermal paste F - Fanless/passive G - Fanless/aggressive
A
A - Fans B - Heat sink D - Liquid-based E - Thermal paste F - Fanless/passive
45
Q
Which are types of physical computer connections? Choose four answers.
Choices:
A - USB B - Micro C - Apex D - SATA E - Simple F - FireWire
A
A - USB
B - Micro
D - SATA
F - FireWire
46
Q
USB 3.0 cables can support up to how many bits?
Choices:
A - 1 Tb
B - 5 Gb
C - 12 Mb
D - 480 Mb
A
B - 5 Gb
47
Q
A user has a client who needs to be able to transfer data from one site to another as quickly as possible. Which SATA cable should the user install?
Choices:
A - SATA 1
B - SATA 2
C - SATA 3
D - SATA 4
A
C - SATA 3
48
Q
Which are types of network connectors? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - DVI
B - VGA
C - RJ-11
D - RJ-45
A
C - RJ-11
D - RJ-45
49
Q
Which are types of PC video connectors? Choose four answers.
Choices:
A - VGA B - HDMI C - DVI-A D - DVI-D E - FireWire F - Thunderclap
A
A - VGA
B - HDMI
C - DVI-A
D - DVI-D
50
Q
Thunderbolt connectors combine __________ and DisplayPort into one signal.
Choices:
A - SATA
B - FireWire
C - Ethernet
D - PCI Express
A
D - PCI Express
51
Q
Which is the typical signal used for a wireless network?
Choices:
A - IR
B - RF
C - NFC
D - Bluetooth
A
B - RF
52
Q
Which form of wireless connection is more common on smartphones than on desktops and laptops?
Choices:
A - IR
B - RF
C - NFC
D - Bluetooth
A
C - NFC
53
Q
Which are power supply connector types? Choose three answers.
Choices:
A - SATAB - FireWire C - 4/8-pin CPU D - 10/20-pin heat sink E - 20/24-pin motherboard
A
A - SATA
C - 4/8-pin CPU
E - 20/24-pin motherboard
54
Q
For an ATX case, a user would need __________ watts or higher, but for a micro-ATX, __________ to 300 watts should be sufficient.
Choices:
A - 100; 180
B - 180; 200
C - 300; 100
D - 300; 180
A
D - 300; 180
55
Q
Which type of rail is dedicated to the CPU of a computer?
Choices:
A - Rail
B - Dual rail
C - Purma rail
D - Second rail
A
B - Dual rail
56
Q
Which items are required for a Graphic/CAD/CAM design workstation? Choose three answers.
A - Hyper-V B - Multicore processor C - High-end video card D - At least 8 GB of RAM E - At least 16 GB of RAM
A
B - Multicore processor
C - High-end video card
D - At least 8 GB of RAM
57
Q
Which two items are most important to a virtualization workstation?
Choices:
A - RAM
B - CPU cores
C - Video card
D - Sound card
A
A - RAM
B - CPU cores
58
Q
A home theater PC has surround sound audio, HDMI output, an HTPC compact form factor and (a) __________.
Choices:
A - TV tuner
B - liquid cooling
C - dedicated RAM
D - multicore processor
A
A - TV tuner
59
Q
Which best defines a thin client workstation?
Choices:
A - A machine with RAID capabilities
B - A machine with a dedicated video card
C - A machine with an operating system and basic applications
D - A machine with an operating system, basic applications, and network connectivity
A
D - A machine with an operating system, basic applications, and network connectivity
60
Q
Which are the two types of LCD monitor panels?
Choices:
A - LED
B - Fluorescent
C - Twisted Nematic
D - In-plane switching
A
C - Twisted Nematic
D - In-plane switching
61
Q
Which are types of displays? Choose three answers.
Choices:
A - DVI B - OLED C - HDMI D - Plasma E - Projector
A
B - OLED
D - Plasma
E - Projector
62
Q
Frame rate refers to how many __________ appear on the screen per second.
Choices:
A - colors
B - pixels
C - frames
D - images
A
C - frames
63
Q
Brightness is the degree in which the overall lighting will appear on a screen while __________ are/is the measured unit(s) that dictate(s) the amount of light output.
Choices:
A - pixels
B - lumens
C - lichtung
D - resolution
A
B - lumens
64
Q
Which are standard interfaces for analog or digital monitors? Choose three answers.
Choices:
A - DVI B - USB C - VGA D - HDMI E - Coaxial
A
A - DVI
C - VGA
D - HDMI
65
Q
Which is required in order to attach two monitors to one computer with only one monitor connection?
Choices:
A - Hub
B - Splitter
C - Silencer
D - Repeater
A
B - Splitter
66
Q
Users can configure multiple displays in which ways? Choose three answers.
Choices:
A - Extend the displays B - Duplicate the displays C - Maximize the display potential D - Display the devices using a DVR E - Show the desktop on only one of the displays
A
A - Extend the displays
B - Duplicate the displays
E - Show the desktop on only one of the displays
67
Q
Which are types of DVI cables? Choose three answers.
Choices:
A - DVI-I B - DVI-R C - DVI-D D - DVI-A E - DVI-HD
A
A - DVI-I
C - DVI-D
D - DVI-A
68
Q
Which display connector type transmits video, audio, and USB signals for monitors that have USB connectors?
Choices:
A - RCA
B - BNC
C - miniHDMI
D - DisplayPort
A
D - DisplayPort
69
Q
Which type of display cables use colors and consist of at least three separate cords? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - DVI B - VGA C - HDMID - Coaxial E - Composite F - Component
A
E - Composite
F - Component
70
Q
Which SATA cable type is longer?
Choices:
A - eSATA
B - SATA 1
C - SATA 2
D - SATA 3
A
A - eSATA
71
Q
Which are 9-pin FireWire cables? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - I500
B - I700
C - S1600
D - S3200
A
C - S1600
D - S3200
72
Q
For old PS/2 ports, __________ is for a mouse and __________ is for a keyboard.
Choices:
A - green; purple
B - purple; green
C - green; orange
D - orange; green
A
A - green; purple
73
Q
Which are cable adapters and converters? Choose four answers.
Choices:
A - DVI to VGA B - PS/2 to USB C - HDMI to VGA D - DVI-D to VGA E - Coaxial to DVI F - Thunderbolt to HDMI
A
A - DVI to VGA
B - PS/2 to USB
C - HDMI to VGA
F - Thunderbolt to HDMI
74
Q
Which are computer input devices? Choose five answers.
Choices:
A - Mouse B - Printer C - Monitor D - Webcam E - Keyboard F - Touchpad G - Microphone
A
A - Mouse D - Webcam E - Keyboard F - Touchpad G - Microphone
75
Q
Which are gaming input devices? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - Joystick
B - Light tan
C - Speakers
D - Gamepad
A
A - Joystick
D - Gamepad
76
Q
Which computer input devices are used to record images and videos? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - Digitizer B - Virtualizer C - Camcorder D - Digital camera E - Biometric devices
A
C - Camcorder
D - Digital camera
77
Q
Which are considered both input and output devices? Choose three answers.
Choices:
A - Printer B - Keyboard C - KVM switch D - MIDI device E - Touch screen
A
C - KVM switch
D - MIDI device
E - Touch screen
78
Q
A __________ is an input and output device which uses an Internet connection to stream content though applications.
Choices:
A - monitor
B - smart TV
C - MIDI device
D - KVM switch
A
B - smart TV
79
Q
Which are printer configuration settings? Choose four answers.
Choices:
A - Duplex B - Collate C - Quality D - Preview E - Green view F - Orientation
A
A - Duplex
B - Collate
C - Quality
F - Orientation
80
Q
In addition to a wired connection like __________, users can share printers wirelessly.
Choices:
A - DVI
B - USB
C - VGA
D - HDMI
A
B - USB
81
Q
A user needs to use a wireless connection for their printer. The printer is only five meters away. Which form of wireless connection should the user utilize?
Choices:
A - IR
B - RF
C - Coaxial
D - Bluetooth
A
D - Bluetooth
82
Q
Which are the two connection types when setting up a printer wirelessly?
Choices:
A - Ad-hoc B - Kerberos C - Waterfall D - Hierarchical E - Infrastructure
A
A - Ad-hoc
E - Infrastructure
83
Q
Which are Apple-based features that help share devices like printers over a network? Choose two answers.
A - Jaguar
B - AirPrint
C - Bonjour
D - Mountain Lion
A
B - AirPrint
C - Bonjour
84
Q
How high can a hard drive cache be on a solid-state drive?
Choices:
A - 1 Gb
B - 8 Mb
C - 128 Gb
D - 128 Mb
A
A - 1 Gb
85
Q
Which are parts of an inkjet printer? Choose five answers.
Choices:
A - Feeder B - Fulcrum C - Carriage D - Print head E - Alternator F - Ink cartridge G - Duplexing assembly
A
A - Feeder C - Carriage D - Print head F - Ink cartridge G - Duplexing assembly
86
Q
Which best defines the thermal printer process?
Choices:
A - A feeder pushes paper through a sprocket where it prints
B - A feeder pushes thermal paper through a sprocket where it changes color and prints
C - A feeder pushes paper until it advances through a spooler where it heats up, changes color and prints
D - A feeder pushes thermal paper until it advances through a sprocket, heats up, changes color, and prints
A
D - A feeder pushes thermal paper until it advances through a sprocket, heats up, changes color, and prints
87
Q
Which elements are associated with impact printers? Choose four answers.
Choices:
A - Pin B - RibbonC - Print head D - Tractor feed E - Impact paper F - Thermal paper
A
A - Pin
B - Ribbon
C - Print head
D - Tractor feed
88
Q
Which virtual print option is Microsoft’s answer for users with no PDF reader?
Choices:
A - Print to file
B - Print to XPS
C - Print to image
D - Print to JavaScript
A
B - Print to XPS
89
Q
A user needs to perform some routine maintenance on their laser printer. Which actions should the user perform? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - Cleaning
B - Buy new plugs
C - Replace the toner
D - Replace the sprockets
A
A - Cleaning
C - Replace the toner
90
Q
Which is a reason a user should replace the print head of an impact printer?
Choices:
A - When there is a paper jam
B - When the pins stop working
C - When the platen gets dented
D - When there is dust in the print head
A
B - When the pins stop working
91
Q
Which are inkjet printer maintenance actions? Choose four answers.
Choices:
A - Clear jams B - Calibration C - Clean heads D - Replace platen E - Replace ribbon F - Replace cartridges
A
A - Clear jams
B - Calibration
C - Clean heads
F - Replace cartridges
